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Latest CISSP exam questions and answers (8Q&As)

QUESTION 77
Calculate the percentage of bandwidth that is saved for one G.729 call crossing a Frame Relay link when ip rtp header-compression is enabled. The Frame Relay overhead is 4 bytes. The G.729 codec bit rate is 8 kb/s. Assume UDP checksum is enabled.
A. approximately 55 percent
B. approximately 85 percent
C. approximately 20 percent
D. approximately 65 percent
E. approximately 60 percent
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 78
Which E1 time slots are used to carry encoded voice only?
A. timeslots to 15, and 17 to 31
B. time slots 1 to 32
C. time slots 1 to 15, and 17 to 31
D. timeslots to 15, and 17 to 32
E. timeslots to 31
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 79 Refer to the exhibit. In this IPv4 packet, which bits in the ToS byte are used for ECN?
A. bits 0,1
B. bits 0,1,2
C. bits 2, 3,4 D. bits 5, 6, 7
E. Bits 6, 7

QUESTION 79
Refer to the exhibit. In this IPv4 packet, which bits in the ToS byte are used for ECN?
A. bits 0,1
B. bits 0,1,2
C. bits 2, 3,4 D. bits 5, 6, 7
E. Bits 6, 7
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 80
These three-class policies use MQC tools whenever possible. Which of the policies will effectively provision for IP telephony traffic being carried over a 768 kb/s Frame Relay PVC using Cisco recommended best-practice parameters?
A. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 compress header ip rtp class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768 frame-relay fragment 960
B. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 768000 7680 0 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 ! map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
C. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 compress header ip rtp class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 fragment frfl2 960 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
D. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE
priority percent 70
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
ip rtp header-compression
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 960

E. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 compress header ip rtp service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 ! map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768 frame-relay fragment 640
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 81
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents zero or more occurrences of the previous digit or wildcard?
A. !
B. +
C. *
D. .
E. ?
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 82
How is fax pass-through traffic treated over IP WAN connections that use the G.729 codec?
A. The fax traffic is demodulated and sent with VAD and echo chancellor disabled.
B. When the TGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that has been contacted, the TGW changes to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.
C. When the OGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that is making the call, the OGW is informed by the contacted device of the Cisco NSF features and switches to the G.711 codec with VAD disabled.
D. The contacting fax machine sends a TCF message to the contacted fax machine and waits for a CFR message. When the CFR message is received, the fax tones sent by the contacting fax machine cause the OGW to send an NSF message to the TGW, instructing it to switch to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled. CISSP pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 83
According to the Cisco QoS SRND guide, cRTP is recommended on which link speed?
A. lower than or equal to 10 Mb/s
B. lower than or equal to 384 kb/s
C. lower than or equal to 1.544 Mb/s
D. lower than or equal to 768 kb/s
E. lower than or equal to 512 kb/s
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 84
An IP phone user just answered an incoming call by lifting the handset. Assuming that the IP phone uses SCCP, which SCCP message will Cisco Unified Communications Manager transmit to this called IP phone immediately after receiving notification about the off-hook event?
A. Station Media Port List message
B. Station Set Ringer message
C. Station Stop Tone message
D. Station Start Media Transmission message
E. Station Open Receive Channel message
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 85
Which three statements about a modem pass-through call are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Clear-channel codec is used to transport modem tones.
B. G.711 mu-law codec is used to transport modem tones.
C. VAD is disabled.
D. VAD is enabled.
E. NLP is disabled. F NLP is enabled.
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 86 Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of inbound calls to 2001 before a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system returns a user busy tone to any additional calls?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 87
You are deploying a new Cisco Unified Communications solution that utilizes a centralized call processing model. Which method of CAC is recommended for this type of solution?
A. RSVP-based
B. gatekeeper-based
C. CUBE-based
D. locations-based
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 88
Which Cisco IOS CLI command can be used to identify the high jitter level of an RTP stream on a Cisco IOS voice gateway?
A. show call active voice brief
B. show voip rtp connections
C. show voice dsp detailed
D. show voice call summary
E. show policy-map interface
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 89 Refer to the exhibit. This Cisco Unified Communications Manager trace shows a SIP message that is sent by a SIP Cisco Unified IP Phone 7965 to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which of these regarding the content of this SIP message is correct?
A. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. keepalive message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. phone registration message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a server failover
D. keepalive message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during fallback
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 90
Which two analog voice interfaces support ground-start? (Choose two.)
A. FXS
B. E&MTypel
C. E&MTypell
D. E&MTypelV
E. FXO
Correct Answer: AE

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Latest CISM study guide pdf questions and answers (10Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose
three.)
A. 2
B. 6
C. 3
D. 7
E. 4
CISM pdf Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 2
What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?
A. 4 disks
B. 2 disks
C. 8 disks
D. 16 disks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two are functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)
A. server connections
B. VLAN creation
C. packet filtering
D. high data transfer rate
E. high network fault tolerance
CISM pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing
department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business
department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated
accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110
B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any Correct CISM exam Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while maintaining
Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)
A. VN Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. Edge Port
E. N Port
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
CISM exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 9
What is the maximum of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 7
CISM pdf Correct Answer: A

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Latest 210-260 exam questions and answers (7Q&As)

QUESTION 21
What are the benefits of Application Streamlining?
A. Applications run up to 100 times faster
B. Reduces application chattiness by 65-98%
C. Accelerates the most important applications, such as CIFS, MAPI, NFS, HTTP/S, Lotus Notes, and
MS-SQL
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Data Streamlining brings what benefits?
A. WAN bandwidth reduction by 60-95%
B. Eliminates redundant data transfers at the byte-sequence level
C. Performs cross-application optimization
D. Provides compression
E. All of the above
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
To help secure the server private key on the server-side Steelhead appliance, which of the following
features can be used?
A. TACACS+ authentication
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Secure Vault
D. Datastore encryption
210-260 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Assume the SSL server is configured for the default SSL port. Which port has to be specified in the in
path rules of the client-side Steelhead appliance?
A. 443
B. 445
C. 7801
D. 8080
210-260 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which of the following MAPI application-specific optimizations can be performed by Steelhead appliances?
A. Read ahead on attachments
B. Read ahead on large emails
C. Write behind on attachments
D. Write behind on large emails
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
When MAPI prepopulation is enabled, what is default TCP keep-alive time used to prepopulate the
Steelhead appliance with emails and attachments?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which of the following platforms provide support for HighSpeed TCP?
A. All Steelhead modules designed for large offices
B. All models except the desktop units
C. All appliance models
D. Only the mid-size office
E. Only really big appliances 80lbs or greater

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Latest ADM-201 dumps exam questions and answers (10Q&As)

QUESTION NO: 11
An administrator is tasked with installing an application patch on a virtual server. The administrator
needs the ability to restore the server to its previous state quickly if the patch corrupts the system.
Which of the following should the administrator do to accomplish this ADM-201 task?
A. Install the patch on a development server
B. Create a full backup
C. Create a snapshot
D. Install the patch on a test server
ADM-201 Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following cloud delivery models presents the LEAST vulnerabilities to a company’s
existing network?
A. Hybrid
B. Community
C. Public
D. Private
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following uses the business model of shared resources in a cloud environment?
A. Elasticity
B. Self-serve
C. Cloud bursting
D. Multi-tenancy
ADM-201 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following is used to locate a specific area of storage in a cloud environment?
A. Object ID
B. SAN
C. Replicas
D. Metadata
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following can be done after an administrator deploys a virtual server to ensure that
the server vNIC can communicate to the physical network?
A. Bridge the vNIC
B. Set the vNIC speed to half-duplex
C. Add an addition vNIC
D. Set the vNIC speed to full-duplex
ADM-201 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 16
After an administrator successfully migrated the last physical application server to a virtual
environment, the help desk reported slow performance. Which of the following should the
administrator have done FIRST before migrating this server?
A. Apply operating system patches to the application server after the migration.
B. Contact the vendor to see if the application is supported in a virtual environment.
C. Take a backup of the application server after the migration.
D. Migrate the application server in a test environment and have users test it.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following would be used to establish a dedicated connection in a hybrid cloud
environment?
A. CHAP
B. AES
C. PKI
D. VPN
ADM-201 exam Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 18
An administrator deployed a DaaS cloud delivery model for a financial institution and implemented
a data encryption technology using AES cryptography. Which of the following should the
administrator implement NEXT?
A. Access controls
B. RC5
C. SSL
D. Zoning
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 19
An administrator deployed ten application servers from a single VM template. A senior
administrator notices that these ten VMs are not using their CV0-001 dump resources efficiently. Which of the
following is MOST likely the issue with the new servers?
A. The dynamic resource pool is malfunctioning.
B. The server is missing security patches.
C. The VM servers were not properly configured.
D. There are insufficient resources available on the host.
ADM-201 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following storage technologies is file-based?
A. WAN
B. DAS
C. SAN
D. NAS
Answer: D
Explanation:

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Latest 70-486 practice exam questions and answers (9Q&As)

.Which technology does OSPFv3 use to authenticate packets
A. SHA256
B. 3DES
C. AES
D. IPsec
70-486 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

8.Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Choose two)
A. It is valid only on NBMA networks.
B. Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
C. Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor.
D. Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet from the other neighbor
E. It is valid only on point-to-point networks.
F. Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

9.Which statement is true about LLDP?
A. LLDP provides VTP support.
B. LLDP does not use a multicast address to communicate.
C. LLDP can indicate only the duplex setting of a link, and not the speed capabilities.
D. LLDP does not support native VLAN indication.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

10.Which data plane protocol does EIGRP Over the Top use
A. GRE
B. MPLS
C. LISP
D. IP-in-IP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

11.Which three configuration settings must match for switchs to be in the same MST region?(Choose three)
A. VLAN names
B. Revision number
C. Region name
D. Domain name
E. Password
F. VLAN-to-instance assignment
70-486 exam Correct Answer: BCF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

12.Which two statements about static routing are true?(Choose two)
A. It is highly scalable as networks grow.
B. It provides better security than dynamic routing.
C. It reduces configuration errors.
D. It requires less bandwidcth and fewer CPU cycles than dynamic routing protocols.
E. It can be implemented more quickly than dynamic routing.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

13.To recover a file from a snapshot using a Windows client, what directory will a user look for?
A. snapshot
B. .snapshot
C. snap
D. ~snapshot
70-486 exam Answer: D

14.To recover a file from a snapshot using a UNIX client, what directory will a user look for?
A. snapshot
B. .snapshot
C. snap
D. ~snapshot
Answer: B

15.Which volume option will disable automatic snapshot creation?
A. Setting the nosnap volume option to on
B. Turning off access to the .snapshot directory
C. Setting the nosnapdir option to on
D. Setting snap reserve to 0%
70-486 exam Answer: A

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Latest 300-206 practice exam questions and answers (15Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Which RADIUS attribute can be used to dynamically assign the Inactivity active timer for MAB users from the Cisco ISE
node?
A. radius-server timeout
B. idle-timeout attribute
C. session-timeout attribute
D. termination-action attribute
300-206 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which two components host the web
authentication portal? (Choose two.)
A. ISE
B. the WLC
C. the access point
D. the switch
E. the endpoints
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which command defines administrator CLI access in ACS5.x?
A. Application reset-passwd acs username
B. username username password password role admin
C. username username password plain password role admin
D. password-policy
3 Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are two possible reasons why a scheduled nightly backup of ISE to a FTP repository would fail? (Choose two.)
A. ISE attempted to write the backup to an invalid path on the FTP server.
B. The ISE and FTP server clocks are out of sync.
C. The username and password for the FTP server are invalid.
D. The server key is invalid or misconfigured.
E. TCP port 69 is disabled on the FTP server.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which model does Cisco support in a RADIUS change of authorization implementation?
A. push
B. pull
C. policy
D. security
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two conditions are valid when configuring ISE for posturing? (Choose two.)
A. Dictionary
B. member Of
C. Profile status
D. File
E. Service
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
In AAA, what function does authentication perform?
A. It identifies the actions that the user can perform on the device.
B. It identifies the user who is trying to access a device.
C. It identifies the actions that a user has previously taken.
D. It identifies what the user can access.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A user is on a wired connection and the posture status is noncompliant. Which state will their EPS session be placed in?
A. disconnected
B. limited
C. no access
D. quarantined
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What are the initial steps must you perform to add the ISE to the WLC?
A.
1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Administration andgt; Authentication andgt; New.
3. Enter server values to begin the configuration.
B.
1. With a Web browser, establish an FTP connection to the WLC pod.
2.Navigate to Security andgt; Administration andgt; New.
3.Add additional security features for FTP authentication.
C.
1. With a Web browser, establish an HTTP connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Authentication andgt; New.
3. Enter ACLs and Authentication methods to begin the configuration.
D.
1. With a Web browser connect, establish an HTTPS connection to the WLC pod.
2. Navigate to Security andgt; Authentication andgt; New.
3. Enter server values to begin the configuration.
300-206 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which remediation type ensures that Automatic Updates configuration is turned on Windows clients per security policy to remediate Windows clients for posture compliance?
A. AS Remediation
B. File Remediation
C. Launch Program Remediation
D. Windows Update Remediation
E. Windows Server Update Services Remediation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have configured a Cisco ISE 1.2 deployment for self-registration of guest users. What two options can you select from to determine when the account duration timer begins? (Choose two.)
A. CreateTime
B. FirstLogin
C. BeginLogin
D. StartTime Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which type of access list is the most scalable that Cisco ISE can use to implement network authorization enforcement for a large number of users?
A. downloadable access lists
B. named access lists
C. VLAN access lists
D. MAC address access lists
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An organization has recently deployed ISE with Trustsec capable Cisco switches and would like to allow differentiated network access based on user groups. Which solution is most suitable for achieving these goals?
A. Cyber Threat Defense for user group control by leveraging Netflow exported from the Cisco switches and identity information from ISE
B. MACsec in Multiple-Host Mode in order to encrypt traffic at each hop of the network infrastructure
C. Identity-based ACLs preconfigured on the Cisco switches with user identities provided by ISE
D. Cisco Security Group Access Policies to control access based on SGTs assigned to different user groups
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco ISE administration options are available in the Default Posture Status setting? (Choose two.)
A. Unknown
B. Compliant
C. FailOpen
D. FailClose
E. Noncompliant
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 15
Which command would be used in order to maintain a single open connection between a network access device and a tacacs server?
A. tacacs-server host timeout
B. tacacs-server host single-connection
C. tacacs-server host andlt;ip addressandgt;
D. tacacs-server host andlt;ip addressandgt; single-connection
300-206 examCorrect Answer: D

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